User blog comment:Lurkenfrau/Is Diana...Cursed?/@comment-24399666-20151119044512

That's a really cool idea, and I like the callback to Stefania. Who you would think would be upset, if only because Adalind's actions got Stefania in trouble with Viktor.

The logic is a bit problematic, since one of the pieces of evidence you use to support the idea of a curse is the fact that Kelly is dead, and Kelly was a Grimm, and your hypothesis is that Grimms are immune to curses.

Although... Kelly did have Diana for over a year (real-time, although given Kelly Jr's gestation period and the sheer number of major events that happened between MonRosalee's wedding and when Adalind found out she was pregnant, not to mention that MonRosalee got married in May or June in-universe, and before Adalind found out she was pregnant, we had a Christmas episode... I have no idea how much in-show time we're supposed to think had passed)... anyway, Kelly Sr. did have a lot of time with Diana, whereas Frederick and Juliette and Kenneth had Diana for less than a day, so maybe Grimms are just highly resistant, but not totally immune.

Question: why do you think Stefania would extend the curse to the Royal Family (Frederick and Kenneth), if they're the ones that are supposed to have received Diana in the first place? Unless it was revenge for Viktor's treatment of her? Or would the curse just be completely non-specific? In which case, wouldn't Stefania be at all worried about it coming back to bite her? After all, she knew that the Royal Family really, really, really wanted Diana, and wasn't going to stop until they got her...